ArchivedThe Quran - Is pre-ordained sin mans responsibility?Hi Carol But if God did not require circumcision for Gentiles, then why the Gentiles in Genesis 17 (men bought with money of the stranger) were circumcised? According to the Holy Bible, the covenant of circumcision was made before the Children of Israel have been chosen. The covenant of circumcision was given before Isaac was born. So, circumcision wasn't given just to the Jewish people but to all of Abraham's descendants. I have heard as an explanation for this that the laws of circumcision only apply to gentiles in two situations: - If they are slaves owned by the Israelites. - If they are going to keep the Passover ceremony. So we are talking here about a division in God' laws between the Children of Israel and the Gentiles!!! Are there two paths to God? Are there two sets of rules? A Jewish Way and a Non-Jewish Way? Circumcision was the very sign of the covenant God made with Abraham before the Old Testament was even given. Jesus as well John were circumcised! Jews would broke the Law for circumcision, and this circumcision was given long before Moses: Jesus answered and said unto them, I have done one work, and ye all marvel. Moses therefore gave unto you circumcision; (not because it is of Moses, but of the fathers and ye on the sabbath day circumcise a man. If a man on the sabbath day receive circumcision, that the law of Moses should not be broken; are ye angry at me, because I have made a man every whit whole on the sabbath day? [John 7:21-23]. Even the Old Testament forbids any uncircumcised male to be a part of the Passover: And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the LORD, let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof. [Exodus 12:48] Now how can an uncircumcised converted gentile be a part of the Passover? "Circumcise yourselves to the LORD, and take away the foreskins of your heart, ye men of Judah and inhabitants of Jerusalem; lest My fury go forth like fire, and burn that none can quench it, because of the evil of your doings." [Jeremiah 4:4] It just can't be 2 paths to God. It can't be a path for someone and a different path for someone else. So how did Peter claim that there is 2 paths to God? One for the Jews and one for the Gentiles? Just I want to add one more thing about Peter: "When Peter came to Antioch, I [Paul] opposed him to his face, because he was clearly in the wrong. Before certain men came from James, he used to eat with the Gentiles. But when they arrived, he began to draw back and separate himself from the Gentiles because he [Peter] was afraid of those who belonged to the circumcision group. (Galatians 2:11-12) How can we rely on a disciple who is wrong and how can we trust everything he said? Thank you Alexei |
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