The "I" to "J" factor:
One of the lies pushed by the Yahwist, is that the name of Jesus starts with a "J" and there is no "J" or a sound like the present "J" in the Hebrew language. They make a lot to do about there being no "J" or a "J" sound in the English language until the letter "I" was changed into a "J" sometime in the 13-16th centuries. One Yahwist prophet said he would give anyone $10,000.00 if they could produce the proof that the letter "J" existed as a pronunciation in Hebrew prior to this alleged change. That proof has been furnished to him, and he refuses to pay up. The following was scanned from the book entitled: God, Jews, And History, by Max I Dimont (a Jewish Scholar), page 29:
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This one example of how the letter "Y" WAS PRONOUNCED as a "J" proves the Yahwist claims are false. Now some of the antichrist against the name of Jesus claim I am changing something here. Note carefully that if the "J" is pronounced like the "Y" then correctly the "Y" and the "J" have the same pronunciation. Also please note that the sounding of the "J" is preserved in the Greek translations for the Hebrew or Aramaic "Y" or "I" as "Jo" as in the case of Jo-shua. We also know that "Jo" is an attempt to continue the original "Yeh" or "Jeh" as pronounced in ancient Hebrew or Aramaic. What we have here is more likely the infusion of Babylonian Chaldean Aramaic backward into the Hebrew and finally into Greek and that answers to why there is the duality of "Jo" and "Je".
Babylonian Aramaic or Syriac
The name of Jesus in Babylonian Aramaic is and this is spelled YESA (JESA) pronounced YESHO (JE-SHO). It is not spelled Yeshua or Yahshua! Aramaic is not ancient Hebrew. To claim the pronication of Aramaic is Hebrew is false. Somehow in the meshing of Greek and the Syrian cultures (multiple wars) the Greek "I" (iota) and the Aramaic "Y" began to be pronounced as "ee" rather than the ancient "I" and "J" sound in ancient Hebrew. In ancient Hebrew the "I" or Jod was pronounced correctly. In Aramaic the "I" or "Jod" became pronounced as "Eod" and with a combining of the dipthongs "e" and "o" it was pronounced as "Yod." The confusion comes when some language charts show the "I" as Jod and more recent ones show the "I" as Yod or Yud. The chart below correctly shows the ancient 10th letter as the Jod corresponding to the sound of our "j". Anciently, in Paleo-Hebrew when the letter "I" was followed by a consonant it retained the sound of the letter "I". But when the letter "I" was followed by a vowel it retained the sound of the letter "j". The Greek "I" or "iota" was originally the "jota" and we are reminded of this where Jesus said not one "jota" (jot) or "tittle" of the law would cease until all was fulfilled (Matt. 5:18).
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And contrary to the claims by blaspheming Yahwist, EESA is not the name for Esau. In the translation of EESA /EESHO into Greek as IESOU(S) there is a mixture of phonetics. Attemps to connect this to the Greek goddes of healing "Iasa" because of a similarity of sounds is pure baloney. These are ignorant of the Aramaic spelling and pronounciation and so can try to blaspheme the name of Jesus using this illogical blasphemy. The "IE" of Greek was the same as the "EE" of Aramaic. And in Paleo-Hebrew the "EE" and the "IE" are the same as "EHY" which is the first three letters of the sacred name "EHYEH." The true and orignal Hebrew name of Jesus was Yehshas. Translated into Aramaic it became EESA/EESHO. And into Greek it became IESOUS. Finally into Latin as Iesus and English as Jesu and finally as Jesus. There is absolutely no paganism or fraud involved in the name of Jesus and any attempt to connect it to any pagan name is proof the individual doing so is a reprobate.
Ancient Hebrew A Dead Language
It must also be remembered that true ancient Hebrew is a dead language of which we know little about correct pronunciation. There are no extant MSS that indicate vowels and or pronunciation. Vowels were guessed at around 700-800AD and placed into the scrolls at that time. Scholars have found hundreds of errors in these additions. Such is the placing of wrong vowels like "a" and "e" in the words where it is now known the other vowel belongs. All we have is the Greek MSS and any transfer of the articulation of the Hebrew or Aramaic phonetics into that tongue. And do not let the gainsayers say this has not happened. We would point out that it did happen in the transfer of ancient Hebrew into Chaldean Babylonian Aramaic and thus back to us again from Chaldean Babylonian Aramaic into Greek. Anyone who denies this route of transfer of many words is simply ignorant of the facts. Check your Strongs and look for the abbreviation "Chald" that he uses to show where the transfer comes from into Greek. Look for instance at Strongs "Rabboni" #4462. Look at how "Rabboni" is a Babylonian Chaldean Aramaic word that is the equivalent of the Greek "Lord" but yet it is translated "Master."
Modern Hebrew is not the same as ancient Hebrew. The way words are pronounced in modern Hebrew cannot be proven to be the way they were pronounced in ancient Hebrew unless we use Greek words where we know the phonetics were transferred from either Hebrew or Aramaic. Modern Hebrew is an invented language based upon several languages and a lot of guessing. Likewise, anyone who says that the ancient Hebrew language had no "J' or "Jo" or "Jod" sounding is simply spreading falsehood based upon Jewish errors and Gentile stupidity.
Yahshua
The guess name "Yahshua" IS NOT found anywhere in any ancient manuscript as the name of the Messiah. It is not in the Bible ANYWHERE! I have debated the Yahwehs and asked them to produce the documents that the name "Yahshua" was the name of the Messiah. Thus far none have done so and they shall never be able to do so. In spite of this, there are several Yahweh sects and cults who continue to spread the false doctrine that "Yahshua" is the correct Hebrew name for Jesus. They claim "Yahshua" does not need transliteration and is accurate in that name form. Is this true? No it is not!
The fact is, that when the Babylonian Masoretic scribes updated the Aramaic and Greek Scriptures in their possession to form a new "redacted" Bible, they added dots and dashes to represent vowel sounds they believed were within these words. Over the centuries quite a few mistakes and fabrications to this new version have been discovered. In spite of this, many continue to use these added vowel points as being the inspired act of God? These are the descendents of the same scribes who opposed Jesus and joined in the plot to have him crucified. They were blind guides on Scripture then and they remain BLIND GUIDES. Of what interest is it to them to translate something accurately if it can be used to prove Jesus was the Messiah? In fact they take the view that it is better for them to corrupt the text than to have it accurate if it can be used to authenticate Jesus was the Messiah. It was these Masoretic scribes living in Babylon who claimed that the correct vowels to insert into the tetragrammaton YHWH were those in the word "Adonai" when correctly they took them from words like "hovah, ahvah, ahveh" . And it was these same scribes who practiced magic and the Kabbalah who suggested that when the vowels of Adonai were combined with YHVH, the sacred name was pronounced "Iehovah" later to be spelled either "Yehovah" or "Jehovah." Certainly the Jews did not protest their own formula for guessing the lost sacred name, they gave it to the world. They put the vowel marks on the tetragrammaton. When this guess name was promoted by Martin of Troppau in his "Pugio Fidei (1278AD)", of the secret Order of St. Dominic, the Jews did not protest. In fact, many do not protest today although the most recent guess name of "Yahweh" is now the favorite of Jews, Catholics, and Protestants, and found proliferated by them extensively throughout their modern theologies. And what do they offer as the AUTHORITY for adding the necessary vowels to form Yahweh? THEY DO NOT USE THE VOWELS OF ADONAI AT ALL. I know where they got the vowels "a" and "e" to insert to make the guess name Yahweh. And it would shock you to know. There is not ONE CLAIM that ADONAI as used to form JEHOVAH was used at all to form YAHWEH! From whence comes the "e" in Yahw-"e"-h? And from whence comes the "weh" pronounced by millions as "veh."? We know what they say "Yah" means, but what is the pregnant hidden riddle in the "weh" or "veh" Let them tell us! And let them tell us how this associates with ADONAI!
The Yahwist will NEVER tell you where the name Yahweh comes from but I will. They claim that "Yah" comes from "Jah" is Psalms 68:4 but no one has ever proved this. We now know that "Jah" is a corruption and this should he "YEH" because it is found in the sacred name EHYEH. It is always a claimed "YAH" comes from Psalms 68:4 but this is an assumption, and believed, but there is not one person in history who says that "Yah" in the name of YAHWEH comes from this text except the Yahwist trying to prove thier case for YAH being the first three letters of the tetragrammaton
Instead, we see Yah in another form of "iah" fixed to several names of those in the Old Testament. We also find several names beginning with "Jeh" or "Yeh" in the Old Testament. Moses was the first to attach "Jeh" to the begining of a name when he added a contraction of EHYEH, the sacred name given at the burning bush, to the name of his successor Oshea. By adding "Jeh" which is a form of "YEH" to Oshea, the name Jehoshea or as Grecianized Jehoshua was formed (Numbers 13:16). But NEVER is an Old Testament name started with "YAH" or "IAH." The three letters "YEH" of "JEH" we know where these came from. "YAH" or "IAH" has nothing to do with the name EHYEH given at the burning bush. So where did this YAH come from? "Iah" is the name of the Egyptian moon god. Did the Jews have Egyptian gods (see Jeremiah 44:8)? The answer is yes. Did they worship the moon whose name was YAH? The answer is yes (2Kings 23:5)!
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