Christian/Muslim ThreadsMuslim view of the BibleThe problem is using this whole "infallibility" concept. In Catholicism, the Pope is infallible in DOCTRINE. For Muslims, infallible means that they could not commit any sin at all -- that is different. Jesus is the only person whom we believe to have been completely devoid of sin. All the others, even those who are spoken of as "being righteous before God", are not completely devoid of sin. For example, Job is spoken of in the same manner, yet after affliction came upon him, he claimed that his afflictions were unjustly brought upon him, for he was without blame. Yet, Elihu, and God himself, contradict him. So, again, according to the Muslim view, infallibility means sinlessness, and therefore, Jesus is the only one completely devoid of sin. Of course. This brings up yet another question. When? You are mixing different subjects. Being able to sin is not the same as being "unable" to be a prophet. Moses ran away after killing an egyptian, did that disqualify him from being the great prophet that he was? He himself said, "I am not eloquent with words", and God said "I will put my words in your mouth". Don't mistake the capacity for sin, with incapacity for being a vessel of God. You are making an unnecessary assumption. I can make mistakes, but I am not prone to criminal activities. I can fail to stop at the stop sign, but I am not prone to go the wrong way on the expressway. I can commit errors, but I will heed to instruction, and if I know it, I will correct my own mistakes. You are unnecessarily assuming that anyone who commits one sin, is prone to commit all of them. I think I can believe that you are not a murderer, right? And this is all off the subject, because being able to sin is not the same as being incapable of serving as a vessel to God. For our belief is that ANYONE can Serve God, for His Grace, His love is poured on mankind from Heaven... Blessings! |
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