ArchivedMaryRomeSweetHome wrote:The idea that Jesus had brothers is posited by ignorant people without a hoot of a notion in how to read the Bible, and who are often anti-Catholic. The idea of Jesus having brothers was not a notion that was commonly posited until 1500 years after Jesus was on this earth. It is, like most of Protestantism, a man-made doctrine.
Even after the birth of Jesus, Mary must remain unblemished and untouched, she did not have children after Jesus, nor can you prove she did. We know from the tradition and teaching of the Jews and the Church that once an object is made sacred it cannot ever be returned to secular purposes. Mary was made sacred she was full of Grace, she was set-aside as the tabernacle through which our Lord would reside for nine months. She had to be made and remain pure, unblemished, and untouched.
To understand this, one must understand how God works, His economy. To understand how God works, one MUST understand the Old Testament.
Protestants tend to abandon the Old Testament and take little heed of it. Thus it is no wonder they cannot understand this dogma, let alone a host of other important teachings about God. Some Fundamentalist nearly rip the Old Testament out of the Bible. They proudly proclaim themselves, "We are a New Testament Church". Well, in reality, that means they are not a church at all.
One CANNOT understand the New Testament without understanding the Old Testament; and the Old Testament cannot be understood without the New. It is ONE BOOK and must be read and understood it as ONE BOOK.
Matt 1:23-25
23 "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel," which is translated, "God with us."
24 Then Joseph, being aroused from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord commanded him and took to him his wife,
25 and did not know her unitil she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus.
Now most not all Protestants are quick to point that in verse 25, that Joseph "did not know here until she had brought forth her firstborn son." They focus on the word until and say well that implies that he knew he after she brough forth Jesus.
tuppence and Aieno let's talk about the word "until" and what it meant in the original Greek. It is the Greek word "heoce".
Strongs Greek Dictionary defines it as follows:
heos (heh'-oce);
of uncertain affinity; a conjunction, preposition and adverb of continuance, until (of time and place):
even (until, unto), (as) far (as), how long, (un-) til (-l), (hither-, un-, up) to, while (-s).
Now this is precisely the same Greek word use elsewhere in scripture. In the Greek Translation of the Old Testament, we see the following text in 2 Samuel
2 Sam 6:23
23 Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child unto the day of her death.
Explain that one for me tuppence.
Notice the word unto, well it is the same Greek word "hoece" this time translated unto as opposed to until. Now does this then mean to imply that Michal had children after she died?
No, clearly it does not. The point is : that while in English, the word until implies something happening afterward, in the original language the word "hoece" does not necessarilly, like you are implying.
So what about the brothers and sisters mentioned in the Bible? Well, for one thing in different cultures the word brother or sister
is not limited to actual brothers and sisters. So the mention of brothers and sisters in the Gospel does not disprove the perpetual virginity, nor does it have to mean that they were anything more then kinsmen.
I have yet to receive your passages.
Peace
I will admit that I'm not the sharpest crayon in the box but, "hoot."
Are you saying that when the passage reads "he did not know or knew her 'til or until she brought forth," that Joseph did not know or knew her personally or even who she was?
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