hisway wrote:Endurance wrote:I completely agree with you that Jesus is not the name given, but was added later. So if one claims that there is only one name, then Jesus would not be that name. Actually, His Hebrew name was Yeshua or Yahshua if transliterated properly. Reason being, there is no equivalent to J in the Hebrew langauge and J was not even used in our language to the 1600s. Before then, it was just an eloquent way of writing the I. I still don't understand why people keep using Jesus, but hey, to each his own. Any name in the bible with a J in it, was translated instead of transliterated and is therefor in error.
As far as His way believing that it is an option. I'm sorry I did not read that post. If you can give me a link to it or if Hisway can clarify this. I will gladly apologize to you for discrediting your statement about Matt...
With Love,
Persecuted...
Hello Endurance, The thing to keep in mind is that modern Hebrew is not the same as the ancient Hebrew or Aramaic. Modern Hebrew is based upon several languages. Scholars have found hundreds of errors concerning vowels that were guessed at around 700-800AD and placed into the scrolls at that time. Therefore, the way words are pronounced in modern Hebrew cannot be proven to be the way they were pronounced in ancient Hebrew. The only way to tell how the ancient Hebrew was pronounced is to use Greek words where it is known those words were transferred from the ancient Hebrew or Aramaic as was done in the Greek Septaugint version of the Old Testament, translated in 280BC.
So the argument that is pushed against the name of Jesus is that the name JESUS starts with a "J" and there is no "J" sound like the present "J" in modern Hebrew. And this "J" did not exist in Hebrew until the letter "I" was changed into a "J" sometime in the 13-16th centuries. But the Jewish scholar, Max I. Dimont, in his book, "God, Jews, And History", proved that the letter "J" did exist as a pronunciation in ancient Hebrew/Aramaic. Note: the sound of the "J" is preserved in the Greek translation for the Hebrew/Aramaic "Y" or "I" as "Jo" as in the case of "
Jo-shua". The "Jo" was an attempt to continue the original "Yeh" or "Jeh" as pronounced in ancient Hebrew/Aramaic.
But the spelling of "Joshua" is not the correct spelling of the Hebrew name that was translated into the Greek. It was "translated" but not "transliterated". In the Greek Septaugint version of the O.T. (280BC) the name JESUS is found; and is spelled "IESOUS". In the KJV this "IESOUS" is spelled "Joshua". But the trouble is the name "IESOUS" was translated into the KJV as a Greek word instead of the Hebrew so the rules of Hebrew grammar were not applied. Scholars know that the "Jo" is the Greek form of the Hebrew "Jeh" or "Yeh". Scholars also know that the Greek "IESOUS" as being a Jewish name in origin must be pronounced as a Jewish name and not like the Greek. In Hebrew, the name JESUS has for its root name the name "Yesha" which means salvation. "Yesha" is the same as "Yehsha". There is no actual ketter "Y" in ancient Hebrew. But there is a letter "I" which can stand for three different sounds of "I", "J", and "Y" depending on the rules of grammar applied. The rule of ancient grammar is that the letters "I" and "Y" have the same pronunciation. Another rule of grammar is that when the letter "I" is followed by a consonant it has the sound of "I" as in "Isaac". But when the letter "I" is followed by a vowel it has the sound of the "Jod" or letter "J". Thus, "IESOUS" when transliterated as a Hebrew/Aramaic word correctly becomes "JESOUS" in English.
With the name "Yesha" there is no actual letter"Y" and this letter is an "I" and should be "IESHA" in spelling. But the "I" followed by a vowel makes the "I" sound like a "J" so "IESHA" then becomes "JESHA(S)" in pronunciation. The Greek language does not have the "SH" sound so it is not in the Greek spelling "IESOUS". But if it did, it would be "IESHOUS" and by applying the rules of Hebrew grammar it would be "JESHOUS" which is the same as JESUS. The name JESUS in the 1611 KJV was spelled "IESUS" and to distinguish the letter "I" when it had the "J" sound, a curl was added at the bottom. Again the ancient rule is that when the "I" is followed by a vowel it has the "J" sound. Thus, the name JESUS is valid and the letter "J" is not a corruption of the letter "I". So in the 1611 KJV when the name "IESUS" is found it was pronounced "JESUS".