My point is: if the farthest mosque refers to the temple in Jerusalem, the the fact remains that the temple was not in existence in Muhammad's era.
If the text refers to an actual mosque, then the fact remains, that there was not mosque in Jerusalem in Muhammad's era.
If the text refers to a synagogue, then the fact remains that there would be synagogues much more distant than Jerusalem, in almost every direction.
If the passage simply refers to any sanctuary related to any religion worshipping the most high God. Then the fact remains that to most modern Muslims, Christianity, Judaism has been corrupted, and should no longer be considered as actual religions of God. On the other hand, modern Muslims to cover up other issues and difficulties, assert that every religion has been corrupted. If that being the case however, it remains a fact then, that virtually most temples or sanctuaries could dedicated to the most high God. This would include ancient sancturies in Iran, India and further in every direction, even though they at the present remain ruins.
Anyone who is able to clarify this matter?
Then the question remains, how could the Koran refer to the farthest mosque in Jerusalem?