(Omega),
First of all, I owe you an apology: I initially confused the replies by "Alpha" with your replies... So - this is the first time I've heard you clarify your position.
As you may have already read in one of my previous posts, I understand that Jesus did not sin and if anyone intends to state/imply that by claiming he was the first "born again" man, I'd say that is error.
Also - just for general clarity - I'm not defending the idea of Jesus being the first "born again" man and I don't accept it myself if for no other reason than the fact that Jesus wasn't the first person to be resurrected, and the other reasons why someone might apply the phrase to him don't make sense to me.
What interested me about your post was why you felt justified in leveling the charge of "blasphemous heresy" at Mrs. Meyers. So, let me focus on this matter:
I'm assuming you'll grant the point I engaged "Alpha" over: that your initial post provides no evidence that Mrs. Meyers claims Jesus sinned. Correct? If not - please show me the claim in her writing.
Moving to your next point, your main concern seems to be that Jesus did not suffer in hell for our sins (and, it follows logically that you also believe he did not ever enter hell - for if he did, one can assume he suffered there) but that he suffered only for our sins on the cross (and I'll assume you also include the fact that he was scourged in your reference to his suffering "on the cross").
If one assumes for the sake of discussion that you are correct and Jesus did not suffer in hell, then one might again ask why you feel this single point of doctrinal error is worthy of the serious charge of "blasphemous heresy"?
I find that an excessive charge.
Surely you'll concede that Mrs. Meyers understands and reverences that - whether it was solely on the cross, or a combination of all his sufferings on this earth and those in hell - Jesus suffered on our behalf!
But, as a matter of doctrine I don't have an answer right now as to whether or not Jesus actually went to "hell" or was simply buried (e.g. "the belly of the earth") for three days.
I would expect you to further conceded, however, that if you are right (and you may be) and Jesus did not enter hell, a sincere brother or sister could make an understandable mistake of thinking otherwise, as it is written in Acts chapter 2:
22"...Jesus of Nazareth...you have taken by lawless hands, have crucified, and put to death; 24whom God raised up, having loosed the pains of death, because it was not possible that He should be held by it. 25For David says concerning Him:
"I foresaw the LORD always before my face,
For He is at my right hand, that I may not be shaken.
26Therefore my heart rejoiced, and my tongue was glad;
Moreover my flesh also will rest in hope.
27For You will not leave my soul in Hades,
Nor will You allow Your Holy One to see corruption.
28You have made known to me the ways of life;
You will make me full of joy in Your presence.'[d]
Of course, I edited the verses for brevity and the bold sections are my own emphasis. The point being - I wouldn't charge someone with "blasphemous heresy" over such a point of doctrine. Why not just explain why this is error and the verses above do not indicate Jesus entered hell?