ArchivedJesuss Deity...Hello Adampastor?
That is a difficult expression and has been misunderstood to suggest that the apostle Paul subordinated the Son to the Father. When Paul says that the Son is subjected to the Father, he is not speaking of the Son in terms of His essence, but in terms of His function and ministry as the Son incarnate. Also Pauls statement is best understood dispensationally. At this present time the administration of the messianic kingdom is given to the Son, However, at the end of the messianic kingdom, this role will be returned to the Father that God may be all in all.
That really does not explain the simplicity of those words, it is final, there is no confusion and there is no way around it. It is written:Revelation 1:18 I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death. Who is it that liveth? GOD, and you cannot apply that term to Him because He became immortal, then you would have to call everyone at the regeneration they that liveth, and there is only ONE being who was always alive which is better known as He that liveth. As the scriptures declare, God is no the God of the dead, but the God of the Living.
Better yet, the whole concept of it is called anthropomorphism, on occasion the scriptures use expressions that seem to attribute human, physical features to God{fingers, hands, arms, and face}which are called anthropomorphisms. Because God is spirit and not a body, we know that these expressions do not describe Him physically but are used to help man understand truths concerning God.
I would like to explain those verses in a different context than yours. What the writer i strying to say is that angels will not have authority in the world to come. In the age to come angels will have no authority over the saints, in fact it is The saints who will judge the angels. It is written:Know ye not that we shall judge angels? how much more things that pertain to this life? If then ye have judgments of things pertaining to this life, set them to judge who are least esteemed in the church. 1 Corinthians 6:3 Psalm 8 shows that man will rule in Gods coming age. Psalm 8 describes man being made a little lower than the angels. "A little"{Gr. brachu ti}has two meanings to it. It could refer to a little while or a little lower. Although God has made man a little lower than the angels for the time being. He also crowned him with glory and honour and set him over His creation. Just as God said at the time of creation, God will ultimately place His creation into mans hands through Christ. By death Chrsit will regain for man what he lost by sin and death. "ALL THINGS" meaning God will not leave anything, including angels separate of mans dominion.
There is a huge difference between Son of God and The Only Begotten Son of God.The Greek word monogenes is used to show the unique relationship between God the Father and Jesus as the Son of the Father. It distinguishes Christ as the only Son of God in comparison to the many children of God. Human beings become children of God whereas Christ always was the Son of God. It is written:John 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. Psalms 2:7 I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. So when was Jesus begotten? the answer to this question is dependant on the word"DAY" God transcends time and lives beyond time, He cannot be limited to a 24-hour day. So this word means and eternal day. I have, and here is what i came up with: The disciples understood that it meant after His resurrection? where does it say that?
How about the Holy Spirit who also is God and that breathed life into the body of Christ! And if you would like scriptural proof concerning the deity of the Holy Ghost then i will present it to you here. But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost, and to keep back part of the price of the land? 4 Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God. Acts 5:3,4 In Verse 3 Peter states that Ananias has lied to the Holy Spirit, and in verse 4 Ananias is told that he has lied to God.
If i may elaborate on that, the baptismal formula in the book of Acts refers to being baptized in Jesus name emphasizing His deity as Saviour and not a contradiction to the formula in which Jesus gave.
The red ink is not fooling nor is it attempting to fool anyone. How can John be referring to after the ascension if Jesus is speaking to Nicodemus within the same verses when Jesus HAS NOT died yet? Unless you are trying to say that the author John is somehow confused or lying. Please forgive me if i sounded offensive. God Bless my friend. |
🌈Pride🌈 goeth before Destruction
When 🌈Pride🌈 cometh, then cometh Shame