Christian/Muslim ThreadsLetter of John
I understand that there may be hundreds of reasons why Islam is inconsistent with Biblical teachings, the same goes for Bahaiism and Mormonism. It's just that the "any spirit" clause of 1John 4:1-3, where it says ANY spirit that confesses the Christ has come, that spirit is FROM GOD. If it had said that, any spirit that confesses that the whole Bible is from God then that spirit is from God, I would have understood it in the context that you have. I suspect that 1John 4:1-3 may have been written by John in order to unite different Christian groups who were in conflict over the issue of the law etc, but inadvertently left the door open for any other confessor of the Christ coming in the flesh. I admit that my reasoning may be fundamentally flawed, but this is the way I have understood it, and this is the way I still understand it. I am not trying to Biblically prove the validity of Islam or any other religion, I don't believe that is possible. I just have a doubt oveer the validity of the 1 John 4:1-3 verse as it is so open to interpretation. The letters of John also quote the book of Enoch which is considered an Apocryphal work by the majority of Christians today, this adds to my concern for the letters of John. Does anyone understand where I'm coming from? If not, I'll get my coat. May the Spirit of Christ be with you always. |
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