Archivedwhat is the problem??????Aieno Wrote Again, the Jews did not define a canon of their Scriptures until 70 AD, but that is after the coming of the Messiah. Thus, in 70 AD, the Jews were no longer the true religion, since they had rejected the Messiah. Ever since Pentecost, the Church of Jesus, that is, the Catholic Church, has been the institution endowed with all authority. Therefore, what the Jews may or may not have decided in a council after Christ, in 70 AD, is irrelevant. They had lost their status as the true religion when they rejected Jesus Christ. . It has been the Catholic Church, from Pentecost on, which is the true and real "Jewish Church," that is the fulfillment of Judaism. The Pharisees in effect founded their own new religion when they rejected Christ in 33 AD. They are not the true heirs of Abraham, Moses, Joshua, David, etc.The Catholic Church is the fulfillment of the Old Testament religion, and anything else is counterfeit, of the devil. But the Protestants would actually concede that the anti-messianic sect that "determined" what books are divinely inspired in 70 AD has any authority! Why is it that the Jews decided on considering only 39 books inspired? Perhaps because they knew that the Christians, their arch-enemies, were using the Greek version of the Scriptures which by the way included the deuterocanonical books! And the Jews wanted to be sure to distinguish themselves clearly from the Christians? By rejecting the deuterocanonical books, they could their own identity back. Besides, the deuterocanon contains many Christian prophecies and allusions to the New Testament, something the Jews could not stand at all! Why, then, would or should we trust an institution that put curses on Christians and repudiated the Messiah and his teachings, in order to know what belongs in the Bible? It makes no sense. If the Protestant trusts the Jews concerning the Scriptural canon, he must be consistent and thus he should also throw out all the books of the New Testament, since the Jews believe the New Testament has not been written yet and therefore contains zero books. Yet no Protestant does that. We can see here then that Protestants want it both ways. They want to have only 39 books in the Old Testament (relying on the Jews for that decision), but yet also wish to have their 27 New Testament books (NOT relying on the Jews this time). Why this inconsistency? Peace |
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